If the inverse of a function f(x) exists, then the y-intercept of f(x) is the x-intercept of its inverse.
True of false??True or False Math Question?
True.
In the case of a first-order function:
y(x) = mx + b
the inverse is y^(-1)(x) = (x-b)/m.
the y intercept of the original is b.
the x intercept of the inverse is where f^(-1)(x) equals zero. So that means (x-b)/m equals zero. For this to happen, x has to equal b. So. y intercept of original = b. x-intercept of inverse = b. And so the two intercepts are always going to be the same.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
No comments:
Post a Comment